I withdrew my theory that Wiliam Shakespeare was, on paper at least, a descendant of King Alfred the Great, through the Ardens, and then I found that he is probably a descendant through the alternative lineage mentioned in my blog below.
There is no point in describing the complexities of those distant ancestral connections, because others with a bit of intelligence can easily do the research that I undertook online. In my view, he was a "bud" of most of the royal houses of Western Europe. As I have said elsewhere, many of us probably are, in the same way - but we cannot trace our roots back for sure to 800AD, and even well before that.
I think Shakespeare knew this ancient root. Why? First, he was keenly interested in "bloodlines" (mentioned in The Sonnets), in family trees (clearly defined in the histories) and in royalty (in all the plays).
Second, "Pepin" was the father of Charlemagne (see my blog below), one of Shakespeare's distant ancestors, in theory at least, whom Shakespeare rightly calls "Charles the Great" in "Henry V,".
If Shakespeare did not know these connections, why did he mention "Pepin" (an unusual name) and others in this line?
The third reason I am keeping to myself - for the moment.